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BradF's avatar

If you knew the regression to the mean time, on average, for each condition tested, yes (null is true vs false). However, to quantify the absolute effects, you need a no placebo arm.

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TiredMedStudent's avatar

Hmm, that's a good point, though I'm not sure you have to have regression to the mean time... As long as I have multiple data points pretreatment (so that I can establish a reliable baseline), don't I only need to show that on average, patients were stable before intervention-->improved on intervention-->regressed post? Also, if this is the case, why can't I look at average score pre-intervention vs avg during placebo treatment and quantify effect that way?

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Frank Harrell's avatar

A study long ago by C Edward Davis et al showed that if a patient passes a triple screen (3 successive clinic visits) for LDL cholesterol > 190 there is still regression to the mean with a surprising proportion of patients having LDL < 190 immediately before randomization to a cholesterol lowering drug.

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